How New Impairment Rules in IFRS 9 Affect You
In July 2014, the standard IFRS 9 was finally completed and the latest amendments brought us new impairment rules (besides the other things).
In my humble opinion, new impairment rules will cause a lot of headaches for mainly financial institutions.
Why?
Well, they will have a hard time to adjust or upgrade their own information systems in order to provide just the right information and calculate loss provision in line with the new requirements.
But – even if you’re not working in a financial institution, don’t celebrate that much.
Do you have some trade receivables?
In such a case, you ARE affected as well.
How?
You need to change the way of calculating “bad debt” provision related to your receivables. Let me show you how.
Expected Credit Loss Model – the basics
IFRS 9 introduces so-called “general model” of recognizing impairment loss. This model requires recognizing impairment losses in line with the stage in which the financial asset currently is. There are 3 stages:
Stage 1: Performing financial assets
Here, we have financially healthy financial assets that are expected to perform normally in line with their contractual terms and there are no signs of increased credit risk.
IFRS 9 requires recognizing impairment loss amounting to 12-month expected credit losses.
What is 12-month expected credit loss?
It is the expected credit loss resulting from default events on a financial instrument that are possible within 12 months after the reporting date.
In this case, the interest revenue is recognized based on effective interest rate method on gross carrying amount, so no loss allowance is taken into account.
Stage 2: Financial assets with significantly increased credit risk
When the credit risk of certain financial asset significantly increased and the resulting credit quality is NOT low risk, then an entity needs to recognize full lifetime expected credit losses.
What are they?
They are present value of losses that arise if a borrower defaults on their obligations throughout the life of the financial instrument.
In fact, 12-month expected credit losses are just the portion of the life time expected credit losses.
Now, please be careful, because expected credit losses are in fact a difference between:
- The present value of cash flows based on the contract of a financial instrument; and
- The present value of cash flows that an entity really expects to obtain from the financial instrument.
As a result, the timing of payments from the financial instrument directly affects their present value and thus the amount of an impairment loss.
In practice, if you expect that debtor will pay you in full, but later than in line with the contract, there IS an impairment loss!
Interest revenue for stage 2 assets is calculated exactly in the same way as in stage 1 (on gross carrying amount).
Stage 3: Credit-impaired financial assets
When your financial asset has already become credit impaired (meaning that certain default events have occurred), then an entity still recognizes lifetime expected credit losses.
However, this time, interest revenue is calculated and recognized based on the amortized cost (that is gross carrying amount less loss allowance).
In this stage, financial assets might need to be individually assessed.
Why is this model so demanding?
Maybe it’s not apparent immediately, but the correct application of this model requires lots of reliable information, for example:
- Information for estimating debtor’s credit risk and identifying its significant increase;
- Information for estimating occurrence of default events within 12 months from the reporting date;
- Information for estimating occurrence of default events within the life of the instrument, their probable outcomes and weights;
and many more.
Even slight change in 1 parameter can affect the resulting amount of recognized impairment loss and thus financial results of an entity. Therefore, it’s everything else but NOT easy to adopt these newest requirements.
However, the good news is that unless you work for a financial institution like bank, you don’t have to follow the above general model.
Great exception for non-financial companies: trade receivables
There are many entities whose primary business is simply NOT providing loans or finances, but for example selling goods or services. These companies might have huge portfolios of trade receivables in their accounts.
Of course, trade receivables do meet the definition of a financial instrument and as a result, they are subject to IFRS 9 as well.
And exactly as I wrote above – if you expect your customer will pay you a bit later than agreed, you have an impairment loss on your trade receivable that you need to recognize!
But don’t worry, you don’t need to go from stage 1 to stage 3, calculate probabilities of default events and recognize 12-month expected credit losses first, followed by life time expected credit losses.
That would be enormous burden for the companies whose focus is something very different.
Instead, standard IFRS 9 permits the use of simplification.
If your trade receivables do not contain significant financing component, you can recognize lifetime expected credit losses right on initial recognition.
Moreover, as a simplification, you can use so-called provision matrix.
Let’s take a look at our example to clarify that.
Example: bad debt provision
ABC, a trading company, has trade receivables with gross carrying amount of CU 500 000 at the end of 20X4. Careful analysis of the trade receivables showed the following:
- One of ABC’s customers, debtor A, filed for bankruptcy proceedings during 20X4. ABC’s receivable to debtor A amounts to CU 2 200 and ABC expects to recover close to nil.
- Aging structure of remaining trade receivables is as follows:
Past due days | Amount in CU | % of expected credit loss |
Within maturity | 392 200 | 0.50 |
1-30 days | 52 300 | 0.80 |
31-90 days | 27 600 | 5.60 |
91-180 days | 13 200 | 8.90 |
181-365 days | 7 500 | 20.30 |
365+ days | 5 000 | 70.00 |
Debtor A | 2 200 | 100.00 |
Total | 500 000 | n/a |
The last column of the table contains percentages of expected credit loss in the individual aging groups. ABC estimated these percentages based on the historical experience and adjusted it, where necessary, for forward-looking estimates.
How should ABC calculate bad debt provision in line with IAS 39 and IFRS 9?
Bad debt provision in line with IAS 39
Firstly, let’s try to calculate bad debt provision in the old way, in line with IAS 39.
IAS 39 requires recognizing the impairment loss to the extent it has already been incurred. So you are not looking to future expectations or anything like that. Instead, you need to examine just the events leading to impairment loss already incurred.
In the ABC company’s trade receivables portfolio, there’s only one such a receivable with incurred impairment loss. Here, bankruptcy proceedings against debtor A would probably represent the default event causing that ABC will not recover its trade receivable.
As ABC assumes the recovery close to nil, it can recognize bad debt provision amounting to 100% of the receivable’s gross carrying amount of CU 2 200.
Although past experience shows that some percentage of other receivables might not be recovered (look to the 3rd column of the table), ABC can’t recognize any bad debt provision to remaining receivables, as there’s no evidence of impairment loss really incurred.
Thus the statistics in the 3rd column is irrelevant for IAS 39 and total bad debt provision in line with IAS 39 is CU 2 200.
Bad debt provision in line with IFRS 9
Here, the things totally change.
Of course, bad debt provision to debtor A’s receivable of CU 2 200 will not be any different. This receivable has already been credit impaired and full lifetime expected credit loss is simply 100% of this receivable – CU 2 200.
However, what about remaining receivables?
Well, based on the statistics in the 3rd column it seems that ABC can reasonably expect some credit loss in the future, although no loss events have happened yet.
However, ABC’s past experience shows that ABC can expect 0.5% credit loss on the trade receivables that are totally healthy and performing normally in line with the contractual terms. The percentages increase with increasing days that the receivables are overdue.
As a result, ABC needs to recognize bad debt provision based on provision matrix, as this simplification is permitted by IFRS 9.
Bad debt allowance is then calculated as:
(392 200 x 0.5%) + (52 300 x 0.8%) + (27 600 x 5.6%) + (13 200 x 8.9%) + (7 500 x 20.3%) + (5 000 x 70%) =
1 961 + 418.4 + 1 545.6 + 1 174.8 + 1 522.5 + 3 500 = CU 10 122.30.
Add provision to debtor A of CU 2 200 and the total bad debt provision in line with IFRS 9 is CU 12 322.30.
Hmhm. That’s quite different from IAS 39 provision, isn’t it?
When to apply new IFRS 9 impairment model
OK, so maybe you have just found out that IFRS 9 can hurt you pretty much. What to do? Is there some time to get ready?
IFRS 9 will be mandatorily applicable for periods starting 1 January 2018 or later, so you still have some time.
However, you can adopt IFRS 9 earlier, if you want.
In this case, if you adopt IFRS 9 before 1 February 2015, you can adopt previous versions of IFRS 9, meaning that you can continue with impairment rules under older IAS 39.
But not after 1 February 2015 – after that date, your only option is to apply new IFRS 9 in its entirety, if you opt to apply it early.
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No words to you, The example you gave is very simple that any person can understand and apply. Thanks a Lot and long live.
This is quite insightful, please Silvia keep it up. I dint know that IFRS 9 could be simplified to that level. What a significant difference between IAS 39 and IFRS 9. Thank you once more for the good job.
Hi Silvia-
Great discussion about the IFRS 9. I am just a beginner on IFRS and I am having trouble on how to record the ECL on the books (journal entries) when you are using the general approach. Can you give example for instance a loans receivable for 3 years, what will be the entries: from stage 1 on year 1, then stage 2 on year 2, because of significant increase in credit risk, then back to stage 1 on year 3, because of regained capacity of the borrower. Sorry I am just confused especially on what amounts to be used per year. Hope you can help. Thank you!
Thank you for explanation. But where could i have the example based on 1 receivable that I expect to gain with monthly repayment and given 1yPD, please?
maturity – 36 months
exposure – 3600
100 payments per month
PD1y=5%
How could I estimate my ECL?
Dear Stanislav,
for individual receivables, you do not use the provisioning matrix (or percentages). In this case, you are assessing the debtor individually, the probability of paying later or not paying at all and you are comparing expected value of all outcomes with the carrying amount of the receivable.
Just a quick example – let’s say there’s 50% probability of debtor facing financial difficulties and present value of recovered receivable would be just 1000. So, expected value of all outcomes is 50%x1000 + 50%x3000 (I assume that present value is 3 600 when the debtor pays on time – normally, you would just look to your books) = 2 000; and you compare this 2000 with your carrying amount to find out the expected credit loss.
S.
Hello, Silvia,
Your materials are amazingly understandable. Thank you for excellent presentations.
My question is related to credit impaired loans (stage 3) interest income recognition.
IFRS 9 Stated that we shall use amortised cost as an interest base, but are we have to use amortised value of the principal less than the portion of the impartment related to the principal, or we use the amortised cost (interest + principal) less than impairment.
And what is your oppinion on this model for interest income recognition:
Dr Accrued interes/ Cr Interest income amount:principal*contractual interest rate
Dr Impairment/ Cr Interest income amount: negative (principal*contractual interest rate-amortised cost*EIR)
My idea is to keep exact track on the contractual on cortractual receivables and to comply with the interest recognition requirements on IFRS 9.
Thanks in advance for your comment.
Hi Silvia,
I would like to know when do we apply the general model and when do we apply the simplification/provision matrix? Is it a matter of choice?
I’m an ACCA student preparing for paper P2.
Hi Henry, I think I covered it above in the article, but for simplicity: the life-time ECL model (“simplification”) is applied for all contract assets, all trade receivables all the lease receivables. ECL for all other assets (loans, debt securities…) is measured by general model (12-month ECL and life-time ECL).
Nicely explained, thank you
Hi Silvia,
Could you please give a more practical example with a loan portfolio or one loan contract. An example of say a loan facility with 5 years tenor, to be repaid on monthly equal installment and the loan repayment past due by six months with a collateral security.
Could you please give a scenario like the above to calculate the impairment loss and and the effect on the financial statement.
Thanks
Thanks for this Silvia.
As rightly mentioned in this article that Companies can use simplified approach for measuring the expected credit losses for trade receivables. This can be done by using provision matrix.
I have one question with respect to this i.e. How will company develop a provision matrix under following circumstances:
1. There were no defaults noted in the past.
2. Trade receivable generally pays the entire amount which is contractually due, though in a staggered manner (i.e. much later than contractually due date)
Do we have to consider time value of money while developing provision matrix? if yes, then how?
Regards,
Mayank
Dear Mayank,
if you have a history or past statistics on average overdue days in collecting the payments, then you should be able to develop a simple model. And yes, of course, you should take the time value of money into account, because that’s the reason why there’s still some expected credit loss (in fact, when your debtors pay you later, then you are losing the interest).
This is too complex topic to reply in a comment, but to give you some hints: try taking your trade receivables portfolio at some past reporting date and analyze the losses. How many of the receivables then not overdue were paid on time (no credit loss)? How many of these receivables were paid late and what’s the loss on them (loss calculated as “lost interest in overdue period)? Let’s say you have 1 000 of receivables and 200 of them were paid with 60 days delay. Let’s say your discount rate is 3%, so calculate “lost interest” over 60 days – it’s 1 (200*3%*60/360 as very simplified calculation). In this case, your loss rate on receivables within maturity is 1/1000 = 0.1%. I hope you get the point, although this is very simplified. S.
In this case there will no provision matrix right i.e. % based on ageing buckets (Please correct me if i am wrong)
What will be subsequent accounting in this case? DO i have to recognize interest income (i guess no)? or provision for expected credit losses (liability) will get reversed as and when money is realized from the debtors
Regards,
Mayank
THANKS IT IS GREAT EFFORTS (( I HAVE PROJECT TO IMPLEMENT IFRS 9 IF I WILL BY IFRS KIT IT WILL HELP ME)
I hope so 🙂
Hi Silvia
how to calculate ECL provision, when Past due information of debtors/ retention money or security deposit is not available. Company doesn’t maintain bill wise details of dues in earlier years.
Regards
Pawan
Dear Pawan,
you can use both internal and external data for estimating ECL provision. As an example, you can use ratings, credit loss experiences of other companies in your industry for similar receivables, external reports, statistics and IFRS 9 also recommends using “peer group experience” for the comparable financial instrument. S.
Dear Silvia
I have a question regarding receivables from government entities. Why receivables from government entities are usually considered good and these are not provided for doubtful debts. Is there any legal/ logical reason behind that.
Thanks and Regards
The reason is that the government is a state and as such is regarded safe (i.e. always paying its debts). It applies for most countries (except for some bankrupt countries). S.
Thank you So much, Silvia
Dear Silivia
How we treat then receivables from government entities that are default or delayed in collection due to issues in government probably bankruptcy.?
As any other receivables that are default or delayed.
Hi Silvia great and elaborated article on ecl. but please kindly tell me the treatment in case the ecl provisioned turns out to be wrong and we have received the entire cashflow on the financial asset. In that case how can we reverse the amount of ecl allowance charged earlier. plz guide as I am about to have my accountancy exams.
Nicely explained Silvia. Its very understandable and simple. God bless you richly.
Thanks,you really explained it well.
Your all articles including this are so helpful. God bless you with prolific benedictions. Thank you
Dear Linda,
Thank you a lot for your post. You are great! Cheers
Hmmm. Linda is my daughter. I am Silvia 🙂
Thank you for our reply.Can you further clarify how we can categorized our portfolio in to thee buckets S-1 2 3( eg whether according to the pas due period /time buckets )and whether first we have to separate ISL and collective.
Dear Upendra,
this question requires much longer reply that I can do in a comment. IFRS 9 offers the full guidance on this topic. However, maybe I’ll write an article about it in the future. S.
Hi Silvia,
Your article is very good. But I need get clarify that ,in a bank how we can categorized our portfolio in to thee buckets S-1 2 3( eg whether according to the pas due period or any other method).It is not practice to identify stage individually evaluating. If it is need individually evaluation we have to follow current ISL method and collective assessment. Please clarify.
Dear Upendra,
for bigger loans, you would make an individual assessment. For smaller loans, you can do a “portfolio” approach, or a collective assessment. You can group the loans according to their characteristics and assess them on a collective basis – that’s possible and permitted by IFRS 9. S.
Hi Silvia,
How to calculate the provision if we don’t have any historical data for PD and LGD generation?
Izad, that’s difficult in this case, but I’m sure that there is at least some industry data or economical statistics in your country that you can use. S.
Credit loss and nothing incurred.
Hmmm…I see a lot of problems with the tax deduction. In Sweden you have to prove that a loss is at least more likely to occur than not to occur to be entitled to a taxdeduction.
Let´s se what the tax courts have to say about it?
Dear Eskil,
I think you hit the point. In many countries, there will be tax issues with the impairment provision under IFRS 9. My only advice is to follow your own tax rules with regard to calculating taxable profit and tax. It will often mean to add the expense for recognizing IFRS 9 provision back to the accounting profit and calculating+recognizing deferred tax. S.
Ma’am please put a video lecture too. it will be more helpfull as you are a good teacher and provide the best explanation to every point. So please put a video too.
Best regards.
Provision can be created only if the entity has a present obligation as a result of a past event (IAS 39). There would be no obligation to the company with regard to the debtors then what is the meaning for the provision of the bad debts?
Dear Soni,
I think you are putting 2 things together: the definiton you mentioned comes from IAS 37, not IAS 39 and it does not apply to financial instruments. Also, technically speaking, under IAS 39/IFRS 9, you do not recognize “provision for bad debts”, but an impairment loss on financial assets. S.
Superb no one dull then me I have understood very easily
Ms. Silvia! Your IFRS presentation and responses to queries is just a big whaoo! Nice presentations! Premium & discounts would be considered @ initial recognition of the financial asset or liability. Pls, continue the good jobs…
Hi Silvia, I like your articles very much. I’m concerned about the matter of interest revenue recognized on the stage 3. IS the difference between the interest stated in the contract and the interest calculated on the stage 3, should be recognized somewhere? Or we just post the new sum ( Dt – accrued interest, Cr – Interest revenue) and forget about the contract terms, am I right?
Thanks
Hi Kate,
yes, you actually don’t go with the contract terms. In fact, it’s a debtor who broke them, right? So you just book the impairment of a financial asset (loan generated or whatever) and recognize an interest as calculated for the stage 3. S.
Thanks for such prompt answer
I said thank you and then thought about discount and premium. If we have it, what should we do? (The same example with the 3d stage)
First variant – amortize it like nothing happened. I mean the sums should be the same as initially counted. But for me, it seems to be complicated.
Second variant – amortize it in some proportion to the interest revenue. If yes, how to calculate it?
Or maybe it’s too late right now and I don’t get the obvious things.
Hmhm, Kate, do you amortize discount or premium separately? Normally, if you get bonds at discount/premium, you would take that discount/premium into account when setting up cash flows from that instrument and not do any separate entries. Isn’t it? S.
Hi, Silvia. I don’t amortize premium or discounts separately. When we have a bond with Discount, in my country we do such posting for interest revenue.
Dt – Interest to be received
Dt –Amortization of Discount
Cr – Interest revenue
If interest revenue is calculated on the gross carrying amount, everything is OK. In a normal situation, when there is no evidence of impairment, in Dt (Interest to be received or Cash) we will post the sum calculated by the terms of the bond. But if the interest revenue is calculated on the amortized cost, I don’t know exactly how to calculate two sums in Dt, since the interest revenue changes.
Thank you silva.
But imagine that a construction company will apply IFRS 15 an IFRS 9 starting from Jan 2016, they have to recognise impairment losses for expected life of debtors plus they might not be able to record that much revenue like last year as majority of their construction contract terms not including enforceable right to payment for customer so Revenue will be recognised at a paeticular point after completion as per IFRS 15.
Is not harmful for FS presentation to apply both in one year and getting Un reasonable comparison with prior 2015 figures.
How can we explain it to the management, people are non financial experts.
Dear Hamada,
I do understand your concerns. Let me just remind you that you should apply these standards retrospectively (with some exceptions) and it means that you should restate also 2015 figures under the new rules. This needs to be done exactly due to comparability. Hope it’s clearer 🙂 S.
Thank you, I got it, in spite of practically It will require a lot of efforts.
thank you!!!! i finally understand!!!!
Example of bad debts is really good to understand. Thank you so much.
I also have the same question as Rajesh. Is there any instance when revenue needs to be adjusted when a receivable is doubtful or certain to be bad? Need to know a scenario 1) when the debt goes bad in the same year revenue was recognised and 2)when the debt goes bad in the year following which revenue was recognised.
Dear Munzir and Rajesh,
no, you do NOT adjust the revenue when the debt goes bad (I don’t mean interest revenue here). It does not matter when the debt goes bad. S.
Does IFRS require adjustment of provision for bad debts with revenue or Cost of goods sold or under selling expenses
Would the Numbers change, if the bankruptcy information only become available after the financial year-end, but before finalizing the annual accounts?
In other words can I ignore this fact!
Dear Sylvia,
Thank you so much for this post. You make it pretty easy to follow. So lovely.
A request, please do a write-up on a possible expected loss model for the banks that can be followed just like what you have done for non-bank entities.
Thank you Silvia for the write up. Sorry about your illness. Please be strong for us.
Dear Sylvia,
Thanks for this precise and insightful notes of the IFRS. I had earlier resolved not to write the ACCA paper p2 due to the complex nature of the standards.
However, with this lecture am now confident that i can pass the exams come june 2015.
Pls kindly mail me some notes on hedge accounting and IAS 41 Biological Assets.
Great Update! I like it, though the new requirements may seem complex, you’ve simplified it in your explanation on how to apply it. Thank you Silvia!
This was a very short and helpfull Example thx so much
Thanks Silva for this insight. I really enjoy reading your articles. Keep it up. I am grateful.
This is a very interesting comparison; indeed the difference between IAS 39 and IFRS 39 is substantial, however, the old style loan loss provisioning under Dutch Gaap was similar to IFRS 9 and gave banks more room for prudent loan loss provisioning and less volatility of P/L.
i like it when you simplify standards. keep it up
Very Helpful indeed! Appreciated.
Hi Silvia,
Thank you very much for your article. I real don’t know why I didn’t see this website earlier.. It is real awesome and I am addictive of IFRS, I always like to increase my practical understanding of these issues.. Thank you very much.
I have one comment which needs your clarification.
In your bad debt provision example, because the example was on trade debtors hope it is the reason that we didn’t discount them as it is a current asset.
What if the ABC Company had a portfolio of loans that matures in say 5 years,on the life time expected impaired model, are we going to discount the amount of impairment loss expected in future but which is going to be recognized this year in our financial statements? Hope it is yes, unless you explain to me otherwise. Please confirm my understanding..
Once again thank you for your nice articles..
Hi Yustino,
well, we did not discount this provision as this is permitted simplification per IFRS 9, but of course, time value of money should be reflected in percentages of loss provision.
With regard to loans – you generally cannot use this simplification. In fact, you should calculate the amount of impairment loss for loans as present value of amount expected to receive less present value of amount per contract – so yes, time value of money is reflected in the loss provision. S.
Hi Silva, thanks for your explaination. How do i calculate effective interest rate
Hello, please try to look here: http://www.cpdbox.com/how-to-calculate-interest-rate-implicit-in-the-lease/
Basically, use IRR formula to your cash flows and you’ll be fine. S.
Hey Silvia ,
could u help me please how to build migration matrices in IFRS 9?
Dear Nariman,
I am sorry, this is totally out of my scope. S.
Hi Sylvia,
This is very nice. It is very simple and very easy to understand. Thank you so much. I hope you will soon come up with the full video on ifrs 9 and ifrs 15 as well. I really love the way you present ifrs. It’s just amazing how you turn a very complicated and boring topic into a very interesting one. Again, thanks and more power to you
Thank you very much, glad you like it! 🙂
Thanks a lot Silvia,, its a great help…Plz share a video on the same as well.. Many thanks…
An excellent article! Keep it up Silvia!
Hi Silvia,
I love this! It is the reality, fully agreed with the principle of Time-value-of money. As a financial Analyst, am completely in support of the provision of IFRS 9.
Useful. Nicely explained
Thank you very much Silvia for clarification .Although I have been red about this in ACCA article ,now it become understandable .
I agree with above comment .
Honestly, this is a laudable efforts being put in place to ensure that the financial statement prepared are well detailed enough so that more confidence could be put on it.
The only comment I would to make is that IASB is not good at choosing effective terminology eg deferred tax, now lifetime expected credit loss, there are few such. They do define this but it would be musch easier for the reader to get the perspective in mind by reading the key terms itself eg lifetime expected credit loss could have been termed as expected future losses. Things need to be simple not complicated. Unfotunately these confusions remains with some people for life.
Hello Silvia,
Thank you very much for the example on bad debt provision.
How to calculated the Expected Loss rate when applying impairment as per IFRS 9 for first time application ?
If trade receivables, go for simplified approve as mentioned above.
How ECL is applied? It’s the same subject to IFRS 1